I wish to prove
$$(\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z)((x < y \land y < z) \rightarrow x < z)$$
only using the rules of Peano Arithmetic (PA) including the induction rule. I have seen other resources here:
Induction proof of transitivity
Prove by induction that P is transitive
but they do not answer my question and I am stuck on performing the induction given several free variables.
We start proving by Induction in the meta-theory:
Basis : $z=0$.
We assume $(\text m < \text n ∧ \text n < 0)$; from it : $(\text n < 0)$.
From (Ax.Q9) we get : $\lnot (\text n < 0)$. Using tautology : $\lnot p \to (p \to q)$ we conclude with :
Induction step : let assume $(\text m < \text n ∧ \text n < z) → (\text m < z)$.
Assume : $(\text m < \text n ∧ \text n < s(z))$. From it we get : $(\text n < s(z))$.
Using (Ax.Q10) we get : $(\text n < z) \lor (\text n = z)$.
Two cases : (a) $(\text n < z)$.
With $(\text m < \text n)$ and Induction Hyp we get : $(\text m < z)$.
(b) $(\text n = z)$. Again, using $(\text m < \text n)$ and axioms for equality we get : $(\text m < z)$.
From $(\text m < z)$ we get $(\text m < z) \lor (\text m = z)$.
Using (Ax.Q10) we get : $(\text m < s(z))$.
Thus, we conclude with :
In this way, we have proved by Induction :
By Generalization, we have :