The problem comes from a practice final for a final exam I have later today.
It says "Show that if $\gcd(e, 24) = 1$ then $e^2 \equiv 1 \bmod 24$".
I found that Euler's totient function $\phi(24) = 8$ So I now know $e^8 \equiv 1 \bmod 24$, but I'm not sure where to go from there.
I found that if $\sqrt[4]e$ is an integer, then it's obvious that $\sqrt[4]e \mid e$, so $\gcd(\sqrt[4]e, 24) = 1$ which I can use to prove $e^2 \equiv 1 \bmod 24$, but that only proves it in the case where $\sqrt[4]e$ is an integer (and I don't think I'm really going in the right direction here).
Euler's $\varphi$-function is often not the right tool for this kind of problem. I would work separately modulo $3$ and modulo $8$.
If $\gcd(e,24)=1$, then $\gcd(e,3)=1$. Therefore, by Fermat's Theorem (but that's overkill!) we have $e^2\equiv 1\pmod 3$. It is overkill because if $e$ is not divisible by $3$, then $e\equiv \pm 1\pmod{3}$, and therefore $e^2\equiv 1\pmod 3$.
If $\gcd(e,24)=1$, then $e$ is odd. It is a standard fact that if $e$ is odd, then $e^2\equiv 1\pmod 8$. For a low level proof, all we need to do is to check the result for $e=1$, $3$, $5$, and $7$, or more simply for $e=\pm 1$ and $e=\pm 3$. Or else we can note that if $e$ is odd, then $e=2k+1$ for some $k$. Thus $e^2=4k^2+4k+1=4k(k+1)+1$. Since $k$ and $k+1$ are consecutive integers, one of them is even, and therefore $4k(k+1)$ is divisible by $8$.
From the facts that $e^2\equiv 1\pmod 3$ and $e^2\equiv 1\pmod 8$, we conclude that $e^2\equiv 1\pmod{24}$.