In class, I came across the integral: $$\int_0^1 \frac{dx }{\sqrt{1-x^2}}=\frac{\pi}{2}$$
This is easy enough to prove using a substitution or by recalling the derivative of $\arcsin x$.
However, how can the integral be evaluated to a finite value when the integrand evaluated at a bound does not exist? In my example, $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$ is undefined at $x=1$.
My intuition tells me that this cannot be true, however, the above example easily says otherwise.
Put more simply, how can $\int_a^b f(x)dx $ exist if either $f(a)$ or $f(b)$ does not exist?
It has to do with the type of singularity.
form $$ \frac1{(1-x^2)^{3/2}} \sim \frac1{2^{3/2}}\frac1{(1-x)^{3/2}} $$ then the latter integrand admits an antiderivative which is not finite as $x \to 1^-$: $$ \int_a^{1-\epsilon}\frac{dx}{(1-x)^{3/2}} = \left[\frac2{\sqrt{1-x}} \right]_a^{1-\epsilon}=\frac2{\sqrt{\epsilon}}-\frac2{\sqrt{1-a}} \to \infty \quad ( \epsilon \to 0). $$