I recently came across the claim that the double sum from $1$ to $\infty$ of $\frac{1}{mn(m+n)} = 2 \zeta(3)$.
I can show it equals the sum from $1$ to $\infty$ of $\frac{H_n}{n^2}$, where $H_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Harmonic number.
Does anyone know the full proof?
Consider the following three sums \begin{eqnarray*} T(1,1,1) & =& \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{mn(m+n)} \\ \zeta(2,1) & =& \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{m(m+n)^2} \\ \zeta(3) & =& \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{m^3}. \\ \end{eqnarray*} Using partial fractions, you already know \begin{eqnarray*} \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{mn(m+n)} = \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{m^2} \left(\frac{1}{n} -\frac{1}{m+n} \right)= \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_m}{m^2} = \zeta(3) + \zeta(2,1) . \end{eqnarray*} Now the trick you need is this \begin{eqnarray*} \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{mn(m+n)} = \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \color{red}{\frac{1}{(m+n)^2} \left(\frac{1}{m} +\frac{1}{n} \right) } \\ = \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{m(m+n)^2} +\sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n(m+n)^2} = 2 \zeta(2,1) \end{eqnarray*} So $\zeta(2,1)=\zeta(3)$ & your sum is $T(1,1,1) =2 \zeta(3)$.