Yesterday, I got a math problem as follows.
Determine with proof whether $\tan 1^\circ$ is an irrational or a rational number?
My solution (method A)
I solved it with the following ways.
I can prove that $\tan 3^\circ$ is an irrational, the proof will be given later because it takes much time to type.
Let's assume that $\tan 1^\circ$ is a rational number. As a result, $$ \tan 2^\circ = \frac{2 \tan 1^\circ }{1-\tan^2 1^\circ}$$ becomes a rational number. Here we don't know whether $\tan 2^\circ$ is an irrational or a rational. Let's consider each case separately as follows:
If $\tan 2^\circ$ is actually an irrational then a contradiction appears in $\tan 2^\circ = \frac{2 \tan 1^\circ}{1 - \tan^2 1^\circ}$. Thus $\tan 1^\circ$ cannot be a rational.
If $\tan 2^\circ$ is actually a rational then we can proceed to evaluate $$\tan 3^\circ = \frac{\tan 2^\circ + \tan 1^\circ}{1 - \tan 2^\circ \tan 1^\circ}$$ A contradiction again appears here because I know that $\tan 3^\circ$ is actually an irrational. Thus $\tan 1^\circ$ cannot be a rational.
For both cases whether $\tan 2^\circ$ is rational or not , it leads us to the conclusion that $\tan 1^\circ$ is an irrational. End.
My friend's solution (Method B)
Assume that $\tan 1^\circ$ is a rational number. If $\tan n^\circ$ ($1\leq n\leq 88$, $n$ is an integer) is a rational number, then $$ \tan (n+1)^\circ = \frac{\tan n^\circ + \tan 1^\circ}{1-\tan n^\circ \tan 1^\circ}$$ becomes a rational number.
Consequently, $\tan N^\circ$ ($1\leq N\leq 89$, $N$ is an integer) becomes a rational number. But that is a contradiction, for example, $\tan 60^\circ = \sqrt 3$ that is an irrational number.
Therefore, $\tan 1^\circ$ is an irrational number.
My friend's solution with shortened inteval (Method C)
Consider my friend's proof and assume that we only know that $\tan 45^\circ =1$ which is a rational number. Any $\tan n^\circ$ for ($1\leq n\leq 44$, $n$ is an integer) is unknown (by assumption).
Let's shorten his interval from ($1\leq n\leq 88$, $n$ is an integer) to ($1\leq n\leq 44$, $n$ is an integer).
Use his remaining proof as follows.
For ($1\leq n\leq 44$, $n$ is an integer), $$ \tan (n+1)^\circ = \frac{\tan n^\circ + \tan 1^\circ}{1-\tan n^\circ \tan 1^\circ}$$ becomes a rational number.
Consequently, $\tan N^\circ$ ($1\leq N\leq 45$, $N$ is an integer) becomes a rational number.
Based on the assumption that we don't know whether $\tan n^\circ$ for ($1\leq n\leq 44$, $n$ is an integer) is rational or not, we cannot show a contradiction up to $45^\circ$,
Questions
Can we conclude that $\tan 1^\circ$ is a rational number in method C as there seems no contradiction?
Is the proof by induction correctly used in method B and C?
Is the proof by induction in method A the strongest?
The inductions in $B$ and $C$ are correct, and they simply continue what you did in $A$. Because you can express $tan(n+1)$ as a rational fraction in $tan(n)$ and $tan(1)$, you can have by induction $tan(n)$ as a fraction of $tan(1)$ only. So if $tan(1)$ is rational, $tan(n)$ too.
The three methods are the same idea, but the only problem with A is that, like you said, the fact that $tan(3)$ is irrational is not obvious, whereas the fact that $tan(30)$ or $tan(60)$ aren't is totally trivial..
In fact, there is also a problem in $C$, is that $tan(45)=1$ is clearly rational, so you cannot conclude anything on $tan(1)$^^