Let
- $(E,\mathcal E)$ be a measurable space
- $\mu$ be a measure on $(E,\mathcal E)$ and $$\mu f:=\int f\:{\rm d}\mu$$ for Borel measurable $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ with $f\ge0$ or $\mu|f|<\infty$
- $\mathcal A_0$ be a subspace of $\left\{f:E\to\mathbb R\mid f\text{ is bounded and }\mathcal E\text{-measurable}\right\}$ closed under multiplication and dense in $L^p(\mu)$ for all $p\ge1$
- $\Gamma$ be a bilinear symmetric operator on $\mathcal A_0$ and $$\Gamma(f):=\Gamma(f,f)\;\;\;\text{for }f\in\mathcal A_0$$
Assume
- $\forall f\in A_0:\exists c\ge0:\forall g\in\mathcal A_0:\left|\mu\Gamma(f,g)\right|\le c\left\|g\right\|_{L^2(\mu)}$
- $\mu\Gamma(f^2,g)+2\langle\Gamma(f),g\rangle_{L^2(\mu)}=2\mu\Gamma(fg,f)$ for all $f,g\in\mathcal A_0$
- $\Gamma(f)\ge0$ for all $f\in\mathcal A_0$
By 1., there is a unique linear symmetric operator $(\mathcal A_0,L)$ on $L^2(\mu)$ with $$\langle Lf,g\rangle_{L^2(\mu)}=-\mu\Gamma(f,g)\;\;\;\text{for all }f,g\in\mathcal A_0.\tag1$$ By 2., $$L(fg)=2\Gamma(f,g)+fLg+gLf\;\;\;\text{for all }f,g\in\mathcal A_0.\tag2$$
Question 1: How can we show that $${\Gamma(f,g)}^2\le\Gamma(f)\Gamma(g)\tag3$$ for all $f,g\in\mathcal A_0$? By 3., $$0\le\Gamma(f+\lambda g)=\Gamma(f)+2\lambda\Gamma(f,g)+\lambda^2\Gamma(g)\;\;\;\text{for all }\lambda\in\mathbb R.\tag4$$ If $\Gamma$ would be positive definite, then we could choose $$\lambda:=-\frac{\Gamma(f,g)}{\Gamma(g)}$$ and conclude. Are we able to prove positive definiteness of $\Gamma$? If not, is there an other way to show $(3)$?
Let $$\mathcal E(f,g):=\mu\Gamma(f,g)\;\;\;\text{for }f,g\in\mathcal A_0.$$ By $(3)$, $${\mathcal E(f,g)}^2\le\mathcal E(f)\mathcal E(g)\;\;\;\text{for all }f,g\in\mathcal A_0.\tag5$$
Assume
- $\mu(Lf)=0$ for all $f\in\mathcal A_0$
By 4., $$\mathcal E(f,g)=-\langle f,Lg\rangle_{L^2(\mu)}=-\langle Lf,g\rangle_{L^2(\mu)}\;\;\;\text{for all }f,g\in\mathcal A_0.\tag6$$
Question 2: How can we show that $\mathcal E$ is closable? Let $(f_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ be $\mathcal E$-Cauchy with $$\left\|f_n\right\|_{L^2(\mu)}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}0.\tag7$$ By $(6)$ and $(5)$, $$0\le\mathcal E(f_n)\le\left\|Lf_m\right\|_{L^2(\mu)}\left\|f_n\right\|_{L^2(\mu)}+{\mathcal E(f_n-f_m)}^{\frac12}{\mathcal E(f_n)}^{\frac12}\;\;\;\text{for all }m,n\in\mathbb N.\tag8$$ My problem is that $\mathcal E(f_n)$ is occuring on the right-hand side of $(8)$. Why can we nevertheless conclude $\mathcal E(f_n)\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}0$?
Gerw basically answered your questions, but I think it's worth summarizing.