I know this might be stupid for most of the people here. I am starting with set theory and I cannot prove this:A-(A∩B)=A-B
I start by assuming: 1) x∈A & ¬ (x∈A & x∈B)
Therefore I understand I can infer:
2) x∈A from 1
3) ¬ (x∈A & x∈B) from 1
4) ¬x∈A & ¬x∈A from 3
5) ¬x∈A from 4
6) ⊥ from 2 and 5
I do not know how to turn around this contradiction. At an intuitively level it is very clear to me, but I am not able to formalize it.
You'd do this by set inclusion. If we can show that $A - (A \cap B) \subset A-B$, and that $A-B \subset A - (A \cap B)$, we'd conclude equality.
So let $x \in A-B$. Then $x \in A, x \notin B$, so $x \notin A \cap B$, and so $x \in A - (A \cap B)$.
If $x \in A - (A \cap B)$, $x\in A$ but not in $ A \cap B$. If $x \in B$ we'd have a contradiction. That finishes the proof.