The inequality itself is listed under summation approximations via integrals. It is being applied to a monotonically increasing function $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$:
$$\int_{a-1}^{b} f(s)\ ds \le \sum_{i=a}^{b} f(i) \le \int_{a}^{b+1} f(s)\ ds$$
After looking at the Euler–Maclaurin formula article, I believe that the inequality is some result of the approximation of the integral $$\int_{a}^{b} f(s)\ ds$$ by $f(a) + f(a+1) + \ldots + f(b)$. Therefore, it would make sense that for a monotonically increasing function $f$,
$$ \int_{a-1}^{b} f(s)\ ds \le \int_{a}^{b} f(s)\ ds \le \int_{a}^{b+1} f(s)\ ds \\ \Rightarrow \quad \int_{a-1}^{b} f(s)\ ds \le \sum_{i=a}^{b} f(i) \le \int_{a}^{b+1} f(s)\ ds. $$
This, however, is a very sloppy justification. Any direction towards a more formal approach would be greatly appreciated!


You have $$\int_{a-1}^b f(s) ds = \sum_{i=a}^{b} \int_{i-1}^{i} f(s) ds$$
But, as $f$ is increasing,
$$\forall i, \ \int_{i-1}^{i} f(s) ds \leq \int_{i-1}^{i} f(i) ds = f(i)$$
So,
$$\int_{a-1}^b f(s) ds \leq \sum_{i=a}^{b} f(i)$$