Before I start, I want to say that I DON’T want the solution to the problem. I just want to know how to move past this point, or if I’ve made a mistake I and if so what it was. Thank you.
For my homework I am supposed to solve the following boundary value problem.
$u_{xx}+u_{yy}=0$
$u(0,y)=0$
$u_x(1,y)=0$
$u_y(x,0)+u(x,0)=0$
$u(x,2)=100$
for: $0<x<1$
$0<y<2$ncosh(
Here is what I have done so far: I started with separation of variables.
$u(x,y)=X(x)Y(y)$
This gives 2 eigenvalue problems
$X’’(x)+\lambda X(x)=0$
$Y’’(y)-\lambda Y(y)=0$
Using the boundary values to find the eigenfunctions gives me the following:
$X_n(x)=A_nsin(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x)+ B_ncos(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x)$
$Y_n(y)= C_ncosh(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x+ D_nsinh(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x) $
$B=0, \lambda_n=(\frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2})^2$
Putting these together I get
$u(x,y)= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} [C_ncosh(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x)+ D_nsinh(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x)] sin(\sqrt{\lambda_n}x) $ The problem is that when I then use the 3rd boundary value I get the following
$(C_n+D_n\sqrt{\lambda_n})sin(\sqrt{\lambda_n}) $ for the terms of the infinite sum.
And there doesn’t seem to be a way to get either of the coefficients B or D from that. I have no idea where to go from here
Okay,
So when you wrote down your system of ODE's you used the conditions $X(0)=0$ and $X'(1)=0$ correctly to find that $X_n(x) = B_n\sin{\left(\frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2}x\right)}$.
Now, using $Y'(0)+Y(0)=0$, we should see that $C\lambda + D\lambda + C + D = 0$, in other words, $C = -D$. So $Y_n(y) = C_n \sinh{\left(\frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2}y\right)}$.
Thus, we have from superposition(and condensing the coefficients into one master coefficient) and all that good stuff,
$$u(x, y) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n \sinh{\left(\frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2}y\right)}\sin{\left(\frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2}x\right)}$$
In order to solve for the coefficients, we must play with the initial condition,
$$100 = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n \sinh{\left((2n-1)\pi\right)}\sin{\left(\frac{(2n-1)\pi}{2}x\right)}$$
By multiplying both sides by $\sin{\left(\frac{(2m-1)\pi}{2}x\right)}$, integrating both sides from $0$ to $1$, and then using the orthogonality relationship we can get a formula for $A_n$. Are you able to take it from this point?