I have found that the Fourier cosine series from $({-\pi},{\pi})$ of the function $f(x)=\cosh(x)$ is
$$ \frac{2\sinh({\pi})}{\pi}\left[\frac{1}{2}+ \sum_{n\: =\: 1}^{\infty}\:\ \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2+1}\cos(nx)\right]$$
How do I use this to show:
$$ \sum_{n\: =\: 1}^{\infty}\:\ \frac{1}{n^2+1}= \frac{{\pi}\coth({\pi})-1}{2}$$
I have no idea really, the $\coth{\pi}$ has thrown me off.
Based on your calculations we advance as
$$ \cosh(x) = \frac{2\sinh({\pi})}{\pi}\left[1+ \sum_{n\: =\: 1}^{\infty}\:\ \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2+1}cos(nx)\right ]. $$
Substituting $x=\pi$ in the above identity gives
$$ \cosh(\pi) = \frac{2\sinh({\pi})}{\pi}\left[1+ \sum_{n\: =\: 1}^{\infty}\:\ \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2+1}(-1)^n\right ] \\ \iff \cosh(\pi) = \frac{2\sinh({\pi})}{\pi}\left[1+ \sum_{n\: =\: 1}^{\infty}\:\ \frac{1}{n^2+1}\right ] $$
and then simplifying to get the result.