An antisymetrical polynomial $~f(x,y)~$ is defined such that $f(x,y)=-f(y,x).$ How do I prove there exists a polynomial $~g(x,y)~$ such that $f(x,y)=g(x,y) \cdot (x-y)$
I tried by letting $f(x,y)=x^n \cdot g_n(x,y)+...+g_0(x,y)$ but I didn’t know what to do after.
Please help me!
Edit: the following works whenever the base ring is a field of characteristic not $2$.
One may look $f$ as a univariate polynomial is the ring $k[y][x]$ just the way you did. This is a ring of polynomials not over a field, but over a domain. Such a polynomial ring is not euclidian in general, but it still has a notion of euclidian division which works in particular whenever we divide by a polynomial whose leading coefficient is a unit.
This is the case of the monic degree $1$ polynomial $x-y$. Hence, arguing this way, we know that there exists polynomials $g\in k[y][x]$ and $r\in k[y][x]$ such that $$f = g(x-y) + r$$ along with the condition $\deg_x(r)<\deg_x(x-y)=1$. Hence, $r=r(y)$ is in fact independant on $x$. Now, let us set $x=y$ in our equation. Because $f$ is antisymmetric, we know that $f(y,y)=0$ (assuming that the characteristic of $k$ is not $2$). Thus, we obtain $$r(y)=0$$ which proves that the univariate polynomial $r$ is in fact $0$. This gives the conclusion we wanted.