How do I prove that for $\forall n\in \mathbb{N}$ $\sum_{k=1}^{n}k(k+1)=\frac{1}{3}n(n+1)(n+2)$?
I need to use induction.
For example if n=1. Than 2=2.
If statement holds for $\forall n\in \mathbb{N}$ then follows for $n + 1$
$\sum_{k=1}^{n+1}k(k+1)=(n+1)(n+2)+\sum_{k=1}^{n}k(k+1)=\frac{1}{3}(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)$.
But what I prove with this?

You have proven that it is true for the case that n = 1 (i.e. that 2 = 2 - this is called the base case). You have then shown that if the relationship is true for n, it is also true for n + 1 (this is the inductive case); this is what the last line shows. Therefore, since it is true for n = 1, it is true for n + 1 = 2; since it is true for n = 2, it is true for n + 1 = 3, ... and hence it is true for all of the natural numbers.