I want to show that the subset $$M = \{f \in C[0,1] : \int_0^1f(x)dx = 0\}$$ is proximinal in the Banach space C[0,1](equipped with the sup norm), that is, for every g $\in$ C[0,1] there exists f$\in$M such that $\parallel$f-g$\parallel_\infty$ = dist(g,M).
Is it in this case enough to show that M is closed? Or do I need do consider something else?
Thanks for your help :)
Let $f=g-\int\limits_0^1g(t)\,dt.$ Then $f\in M$ and $$\| g-f\|_\infty =\left |\int\limits_0^1g(t)\,dt\right | $$ Let $h\in M.$ Then $$\|g-h\|_\infty \ge \left |\int\limits_0^1[g(t)-h(t)]\,dt\right |=\left |\int\limits_0^1g(t)\,dt\right |$$ Hence $$d(g,M)\ge \left |\int\limits_0^1g(t)\,dt\right |$$