How do I show $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b^2-a,b)$?
I know that $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(a-b,b)$. I think the statement $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b^2-a,b)$ is false but im not finding any counterexample.
How do I show $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b^2-a,b)$?
I know that $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(a-b,b)$. I think the statement $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b^2-a,b)$ is false but im not finding any counterexample.
We have $d\mid a$ and $d\mid b$, if and only if $a=dr$ and $b=ds$ for some $r,s\in\Bbb Z$, if and only if $ma=drm$ and $nb=dsn$ for some $r,s\in\Bbb Z$ and all $m,n\in\Bbb Z$, if and only if $d \mid (ma+nb)$ for all $m,n\in\Bbb Z$.