If $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ and $\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b} \in \mathbb{Z}$, I want to show that $a=b$. After that, I want to show that $a=1$ or $a=2$.
I have thought the following so far.
Since $\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b} \in \mathbb{Z}$, it follows that $\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}=k, \text{ for some } k\in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$.
Then $b+a=kab$.
Suppose that $a \neq b$. Then $\exists$ some prime $p$ such that $p \mid a$ and some prime $q \neq p$ such that $q \mid b$.
Then $p \mid b+a$ and $p \mid a$. Thus $p \mid b$. So we get that $p \cdot q \mid b$.
In the same way, we get that $p \cdot q \mid a$.
Therefore, we get that $p \cdot q \mid a \cdot b$.
Can we use the above in order to deduce that $a=b$ ?
It is much simpler to use inequalities. We have $\frac 1 a \leq 1$ and $\frac 1 b \leq 1$ so $\frac 1 a +\frac 1 b\leq 2$. If $\frac 1 a +\frac 1 b$ is an integer then it must be $1$ or $2$. Also, if $a>2$ or $b >2$ we get $\frac 1 a +\frac 1 b <1.5 <2$ so we mjust have $a \leq 2$ and $b \leq 2$. You can now finish the proof easily.