Recently, I encountered a question on continuously compounding interest. The solution started with the following differential equation
$$\frac{dN}{dt} - rN = 0$$
where $r$ is the interest rate and $N$ is the principal amount. However, I couldn't understand how this equation was formulated. There was no explanation given. I know the solution to it is $
$$N (t) = N_{0} e^{rt}$$
which this equation correctly satisfies, but I couldn't find the proof / thinking online. All the proofs online involve taking the limit
$$N = N_{0}\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1+\frac{r}{n}\right)^{tn}$$
Can someone please explain how exactly one arrives at the differential equation $\frac{dN}{dt}-rN=0$?
There is a simple calculus explanation:
It is based on the consideration that the percentage change of the principal $dN/N$ during an infinitesimal time period $dt$ is $r_t dt$, i.e.
$$\frac{dN}{N} = r_t dt\tag{1}$$
where the rate of change $r_t$ is the so-called instantaneous interest rate. The expression implies that The principal appreciation over each successive period $dt$ is built upon its accumulation over all previous periods, hence continuous compounding.
Rearrange (1) allows one to arrive at the deferential equation in question, i.e.
$$\frac{dN}{dt}-r_tN=0$$