Let $F$ be a field and $\sigma:F[x]\to F[x]$ be automorphism, $\sigma(a) = a$ for all $a\in F$. I'm supposed to show that $\sigma(f(x)) = f(ax+b)$ for some $a\not = 0$ and $b$ in $F$.
Now I've got a solution that my professor gave me that seems to assume that the automorphism must have the form $\sigma(f(x)) = f(p(x))$ for some $p(x)\in F[x]$. So my question is how does $\sigma$ being an automorphism on $F[x]$ and $\sigma(a) = a$ for all $a\in F$ give us that $\sigma(f(x) = f(p(x))$ for some $p(x)\in F[x]$, why can't there be some weirder looking automorphism?
I've looked at Automorphisms of $F[x]$, however the only solution seems to make the same assumption that my professor makes.
Let $\sigma(x) = p(x)$.
If $f(x) = \sum_{i=0}^n a_i x^i$, then using the fact that $\sigma$ is a ring homomorphism, $$\sigma(f(x)) = \sigma \left( \sum_{i=0}^n a_i x^i \right) = \sum_{i=0}^n \sigma(a_i) \sigma(x)^i = \sum_{i=0}^n a_i p(x)^i = f(p(x)).$$
More generally, if $A$ is any $F$-algebra, then every $F$-algebra homomorphism $F[x] \to A$ takes the form $f(x) \mapsto f(a)$ for some $a \in A$.