I know the following result thanks to the technique "Integral Milking":
$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin(2x)}{1-e^{2\pi x}} dx = \frac{1}{2-2e^2}$$
So I have a proof (I might list it here later, if it turns out this question seems very hard to solve) of the result, but I wouldn't be able to solve it if I would start with the integral. I tried a few things, e.g. expanding and substitution, but I didn't come anywhere. WolframAlpha doesn't have the closed-form, but you can check numerically if you want.
How would you solve the integral without knowing the result?
Divide the numerator and denominator by $e^{2\pi x}$: $$I=-\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-2\pi x} \sin{(2x)}}{1-e^{-2\pi x}} \; dx$$ $$I=-\int_0^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} e^{-2\pi x n} \sin{(2x)} \; dx$$ Due to Fubini theorem we can interchange the summation and integral: $$I=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \int_0^{\infty} e^{-2\pi x n} \sin{(2x)} \; dx$$ Then, use integration by parts: $$I=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2 \pi^2 n^2+2}$$ $$I=-\frac{1}{4} \left( \coth{1}-1\right)$$ $$I=\frac{1}{2-2e^2}$$