Consider the measure space $(\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}, \mathcal{B} \otimes \mathcal{B}, \lambda \otimes \lambda)$ where $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue measure on $(\mathbb{R}, \mathcal{B})$. Since $\lambda$ is $\sigma$-finite, $\lambda \otimes \lambda (B_1 \times B_2) = \lambda(B_1) \cdot \lambda(B_2)$ for $B_1, B_2 \in \mathcal{B}$ (right?).
Then consider the set $\{(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 : x=y\}$. Firstly, how do we know this set is Lebesgue-measurable, and secondly, how would we define the Lebesgue measure of this set? Apparently it is zero, but why?
Let $A=\{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2:x=y\}$. You could use that $B\otimes B$ are the Borel sets on $\mathbb{R}^2$ so a closed subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ is measurable. If you don't know that yet you can go from first principles: Divide $A$ into a countable union of $A_n = \{(x,y)\in A: -n\leq x\leq n\}$. Show that $A_n$ is measurable by starting with the square $B=[-n,n]\times[-n,n]$ and consecutively cutting out other squares to approximate the line. That way you can also show that the complement of $A_n$ in $B$ has measure $4n^2$ equal to the measure of $B$ and hence $\lambda\times\lambda(A_n)=0$. Since $A$ is the union of such sets it is also of measure $0$.