From An AOPS website on a Putnam Question,
The specific identity Kent Merryfield uses is:
For any $n\in\mathbb N$ we can find a nonnegative integer $k$ such that $n\equiv 2^k \pmod{2^{k+1}}$. This is true when $k$ is the largest integer such that $2^k$ divides $n$.
I dont understanding the reasoning, the intuition behind this, but I also dont understand how to derive (prove) that conclusion he makes?
Can anyone help me?
Also, what branch of number theory is this?
Let $2^k$ be the largest power of $2$ that divides $n$. Then $n\equiv 2^k\pmod{2^{k+1}}$.
Proof: We have $n=2^k q$ where $q=1+2t$ is odd. Thus $n=2^k+t2^{k+1}$, and therefore $n\equiv 2^k\pmod{2^{k+1}}$.