Have this sum have close form $$f(n)=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\left(\left(\sum_{i=0}^{k}(-1)^i\binom{n}{i}\right)\cdot\left(\sum_{j=k+1}^{n}(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}\right)\right)$$
Maybe this sum can use integral to solve it? Thank you
Have this sum have close form $$f(n)=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\left(\left(\sum_{i=0}^{k}(-1)^i\binom{n}{i}\right)\cdot\left(\sum_{j=k+1}^{n}(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}\right)\right)$$
Maybe this sum can use integral to solve it? Thank you
On
This sum is actually quite tame if you take it step by step.
The sum comprising the first factor is:
$$\sum_{j=0}^{k}(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}=(-1)^k\binom{n-1}{k}.$$
And since $\sum_{j=0}^{n}(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}=0$, we immediately find the sum in the second factor to be:
$$\sum_{j=k+1}^{n}(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}=-(-1)^k\binom{n-1}{k}.$$
Hence, the sum for $f(n)$ can be written as a single finite binomial sum whose values are well known to be the (negatives of the) central binomial coefficients:
$$f(n)=-\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\binom{n-1}{k}^2=-\binom{2(n-1)}{n-1}.$$
I've simply added a justification of the first identity in David H's answer.
Assume that $n\ge1$, so that $\binom{n-1}{n}=0$. $$ \begin{align} \sum_{j=0}^k(-1)^j\binom{n}{j} &=\sum_{j=0}^k(-1)^j\left[\binom{n-1}{j}+\binom{n-1}{j-1}\right]\\ &=\sum_{j=0}^k(-1)^j\binom{n-1}{j}-\sum_{j=0}^{k-1}(-1)^j\binom{n-1}{j}\\ &=(-1)^k\binom{n-1}{k}\tag{1} \end{align} $$ Using $k=n$ in $(1)$ yields $$ \begin{align} \sum_{j=0}^n(-1)^j\binom{n}{j} &=(-1)^n\binom{n-1}{n}\\ &=0\tag{2} \end{align} $$
Therefore, using Vandermonde's Inequality and $(1)$ and $(2)$ gives $$ \begin{align} &\sum_{k=0}^n\left(\sum_{i=0}^k(-1)^i\binom{n}{i}\right)\left(\sum_{j=k+1}^n(-1)^j\binom{n}{j}\right)\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\binom{n-1}{k}(-1)^{k+1}\binom{n-1}{k}\\ &=-\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n-1}{k}\binom{n-1}{n-1-k}\\ &=-\binom{2n-2}{n-1}\tag{3} \end{align} $$