Many sources claim that $f(x)=x+1$ is not backwards stable. That is, it does not give an exact solution to a slightly perturbed (or "nearby") problem.
e.g. https://www.cs.usask.ca/~spiteri/CMPT898/notes/numericalStability.pdf on page 24.
Now, when I work this out myself, I think I'm able to show that $\exists\,\,\, \epsilon $ s.t. the computed problem with errors of $\epsilon_1, \epsilon_2,$ and $\epsilon_3 $ is equal to a slightly perturbed problem. Since there is an error for rounding on each input, and then an error for the addition, the computed solution is $(x(1+\epsilon_1)+1(1+\epsilon_2))(1+\epsilon_3)$, and the exact solution slightly perturbed is $(x+1)(1+\epsilon)$. So i am showingthese are equal for some epsilon on the order of machine precision:
$(x(1+\epsilon_1)+1(1+\epsilon_2))(1+\epsilon_3)=(x+1)(1+\epsilon)$
multiplying these out we get:
$x+\epsilon_1x+1+\epsilon_2+\epsilon_2x+\epsilon_3\epsilon_1x+\epsilon_3+\epsilon_3\epsilon_2=x+1+\epsilon x+\epsilon$
subtract $x$ and $1$ from both sides
$\epsilon_1x+\epsilon_2+\epsilon_2x+\epsilon_3\epsilon_1x+\epsilon_3+\epsilon_3\epsilon_2=\epsilon x+\epsilon$
Now, it seems clear to me that we cna always find an epsilon on the right hand side that will complete the equation.
Most sources cite $x=0$ as the value that breaks this condition, but if I set $x=0$ I am still able to see an $\epsilon$ that mkaes this work.
What am i missing here?
In this case $\tilde{f}(x) = \mathrm{fl}(x) \oplus 1$. Now there is a bound $c>0$ such that if $0<\mathrm{fl}(x)< c$ then $\mathrm{fl}(x)\oplus 1=1$. So in this case $\tilde{f}(x) = f(\tilde{x})$ implies $\tilde{x}=0$. However, $0$ is too far from $\mathrm{fl}(x)$ to satisfy the backward stability requirement.