How is it seen that the solution to Laplace's eq. belongs to $C^2(\Omega) \cap C(\bar{\Omega})$?
Or also, if it applies to other PDEs than the Laplace's eq. as well.
2026-03-02 01:49:46.1772416186
How is it seen that the solution to Laplace's eq. belongs to $C^2(\Omega) \cap C(\bar{\Omega})$?
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