Recently the article "Foundations of mathematics" in Russian Wikipedia attracted my attention by lots of strange (and often absurd) declarations, in particular, it is written there that David Hilbert (it is not clear, apparently, in some period of his life?) accepted the intuitionistic views.
When discussing this with the Wikipedia authors I understood that a large part of those oddities comes from the Morris Kline book "Mathematics: The Loss of Certainty". As an illustration, at page 250 (Oxford University Press, 1980) he writes that
In metamathematics, Hilbert proposed to use a special logic that was to be free of all objections. The logical principles would be so obviously true that everyone would accept them. Actually, they were very close to the intuitionist principles. Controversial reasoning--such as proof of existence by contradiction, transfinite induction, actually infinite sets, impredicative definitions, and the axiom of choice was not to be used.
Can anybody explain me what this can mean? Is it possible that Hilbert indeed agreed with intuitionists in some moment of his life? If yes, when was that, and when did he change his mind?
Or the explanaltion is that Kline simply does not understand what he describes (and therefore his book can't be treated as a reliable source)?
I would be grateful to people who could cast light on this because from what is written in the Wikipedia article it is seen that the declarations like those from the Kline book generated a series of further interpretations in other "popular texts", which led finally to absolutely absurd conlusions where, for example, Hilbert is presented as a loser, mathematics as a part of science that "abandoned claims for significance of its results", etc.
I can't read this, but I am not a specialist in history of mathematics, and it's difficult for me to understand what can lie behind all this. On the other hand the Wikipedia rules are contradictory, they give a possibility to the people who reached some power in its feudal stairs to abuse this power. So I need help.
EDIT. From the discussion in comments it became clear that the following detail could resolve the main part of my doubts:
Is it true that Hilbert agreed somewhere that the law of excluded middle (and the proofs by contradiction) must be rejected?
This sounds completely implausible.
The following statement is attributed to Hilbert:
"Taking the principle of excluded middle from the mathematician would be the same, say, as proscribing the telescope to the astronomer or to the boxer the use of his fists. To prohibit existence statements and the principle of excluded middle is tantamount to relinquishing the science of mathematics altogether."
I do not know the original source of this quotation, but have a look at
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brouwer%E2%80%93Hilbert_controversy
https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/94a8/211d31e5ab6d67114b3451ea7f3e2bb6650b.pdf (p. 24)
http://www.hup.harvard.edu/catalog.php?isbn=9780674324497&content=toc
I think the quotation is authentic - it is consistent to what we know about Hilbert. In fact, Hilbert felt personally offended by Brouwer and (Hilbert's own student!) Hermann Weyl who supported Brouwer. Let me quote from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundations_of_mathematics#Foundational_crisis :
"The main opponent was the intuitionist school, led by L. E. J. Brouwer, which resolutely discarded formalism as a meaningless game with symbols (van Dalen, 2008). The fight was acrimonious. In 1920 Hilbert succeeded in having Brouwer, whom he considered a threat to mathematics, removed from the editorial board of Mathematische Annalen, the leading mathematical journal of the time."