To prove linear independence of a set of functions, we say that given their Wronskian matrix $~W~$, $~W_x = 0~$ implies trivial solution $~(0,0,0,\cdots)~$ if the value (determinant) of the Wronskian is identically non-zero.
But why so?
For all I know, $~W = 0~$ only implies a unique solution, not necessarily $~(0,0,0,\cdots)~$.
All the articles on the web are really confusing me.
OK, so you know that there is only one unique solution to the system. Can you try guessing it? It's pretty trivial...