While I was reading an advanced maths stat textbook. It directly uses the following integral result for some proofs
$$\int_1^{\infty} x^{-\theta} \log x \ \mathrm dx=\dfrac 1{(\theta-1)^2}$$
I'm curious how to prove this. I tried normal tricks I know like doing integration by parts and substitutions. But none of them seems to work. Is there any other tricky way to do this.
Integration by parts with the choice $$u = \log x, \quad du = \frac{1}{x} \, dx, \\ dv = x^{-\theta} \, dx, \quad v = \frac{x^{-\theta+1}}{-\theta+1}$$ yields $$\int_{x=1}^\infty x^{-\theta} \log x \, dx = \left[\frac{x^{-\theta+1}}{-\theta+1} \log x \right]_{x=1}^\infty - \int_{x=1}^\infty \frac{x^{-\theta}}{-\theta+1} \, dx = \frac{1}{\theta-1} \int_{x=1}^\infty x^{-\theta} \, dx.$$ The rest is straightforward.