This is a question from NBHM $2022$ exam. It asks to find the area of the region $\{z+\frac{z^2}{2} \mid z\in \mathbb{C},|z| \leq 1\}$
Now $z+\frac{z^2}{2}$ = $\frac{(z+1)^2}{2}-\frac{1}{2}$.
The $-\frac{1}{2}$ part is just a translation, so it does not change the area. But I couldn't understand what is happening in the $\frac{(z+1)^2}{2}$ part. The resulting region is not a circular shape as the images of $i,-1,-i$ are $i,0,-i$ which lies on the same line. My question is how to understand what's happening in the $\frac{(z+1)^2}{2}$ part. Edit: the answer is given $\frac{3\pi}{2}$
Following is a way to evaluate the area using complex coordinates $z = x+iy$ and $\bar{z} = x-iy$. The key is in terms of $z, \bar{z}$, the area element has the form:
$$dx \wedge dy = \frac{1}{2i} d\bar{z} \wedge dz$$
Let $\omega(z) = z + \frac{z^2}{2}$ and $D$ be the unit disk and $C = \partial D$ be the unit circle.
Notice the map $C \in z \mapsto z + \frac{z^2}{2} \in \partial \omega(D)$ is 1-1, the area of $\omega(D)$ equals to
$$\begin{align} \verb/Area/ &= \overbrace{\frac1{2i}\int_{\omega(D)}d\bar{\omega} \wedge d\omega = \frac1{2i}\int_{\partial \omega(D)}\bar{\omega} d\omega} ^{\text{complex version of Stokes' theorem}}\\ &= \frac1{2i}\int_C \left(\bar{z} + \frac{\bar{z}^2}{2}\right)(1 + z)dz\end{align} $$ Since $\bar{z} = \frac1z$ on $C$, we have
$$\begin{align}\verb/Area/ &=\frac1{2i}\int_C\left(\frac1z + \frac{2}{z^2}\right)(1+z)dz\\ &=\frac{2\pi i}{2i} \verb/Res/_{z=0}\left[1 + \frac3{2z} + \frac1{2z^2}\right]\\ &= \frac{3\pi}{2} \end{align} $$