Multisets are like sets, but can contain duplicates. Suppose we have two multisets $A, B$, and we want to define a map from one to the other ie:
$$ f : A \rightarrow B.$$
How do we do this? Is it possible to assign one "element" of the multiset $B$ with on element of the multiset $A$? Does it behave like a function, in that for every "element" of $A$, there is exactly one corresponding "element" of $B$? I think this must be equal to the span:
$$Set(A) \leftarrow C \rightarrow Set(B)$$
for some indexing set $C$, where $Set(A)$ is the underlying set of the multiset $A$. Is that true?
Suppose $A$ is a multiset where $a\in A$ appears more than once, i.e. $a_1,a_2\in A$. If $a_1$ and $a_2$ are indistinguishable, then there is no way to have $f(\{a_1\}) \neq f(\{a_2\})$. Similarly, if $b_1,b_2\in B$ are indistinguishable, then there is no way to have $f^{-1}(\{b_1\}) \neq f^{-1}(\{b_2\})$. Thus, any map between $A$ and $B$ will actually be a map between their underlying sets.