Let $f:\mathbb{R}→\mathbb{R}$ be the function given by $$f(x)= \begin{cases} x\sin\left(\frac1{x}\right) & \text{if }x\not\in\mathbb{Q} \\x^2 & \text{if }x\in \mathbb{Q} \end{cases}$$
Determine whether $\lim_{x\to 0} f (x)$ exists, and compute the limit if it exists, justifying your answer.
I always get stuck doing these types of questions.
suppose $r_n$ is not rational and $lim{r_n}=0$ then as function $sin$ is bounded it will be $limf(r_n)=0$. If now $q_n$ is rational then again $limf(r_n)=0$.If a sequence has both rational and irrational terms take two diferrent sequences.