I was told by this OP, $$\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\large-x^n} \,dx =\Gamma \left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right), \qquad\text{ for $n>1$}.$$ This is via the variable change $t=x^n$:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{\large-x^n}\,dx=\frac{1}{n}\int_0^{\infty} t^{\large\frac{1}{n}-1}\ e^{-t}\ dt=\frac{1}{n}\Gamma \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)=\Gamma \left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)$$
However, is it possible to do integral $$I_1=\int_0^{+\infty} e^{\large-x^2-ax^4}\ dx, \qquad\text{ for $a>0$}$$
Or in general, is it possible to do integral $$I_2=\int_0^{+\infty} e^{\large-a_1x-a_2x^2-\cdots-a_nx^n} dx, \qquad\text{ for $a_i>0$}$$
I tried to follow hints from MathFacts
$$4I_1^2=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-x^2-ax^4-y^2-ay^4}dxdy = =\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-(x^2+y^2)-a(x^2+y^2)^2+2ax^2y^2}dxdy$$
change to $(r,\theta)$:
$$4I_1^2 = \int_0^\infty df \, e^{-r^2-ar^4} \int_0^{2\pi} e^{2ar^4\cos^2\theta \sin^2\theta} d\theta$$
Then I'm lost on how to proceed
The tables of Laplace transforms are of invaluable help :