I am trying to evaluate this expression (derived from integration)
$[\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax} -\frac{1}{a^2}e^{-ax}]$ between infinity and zero
I get $\frac{1}{a^2}$, but I am assuming that the first term evaluated at infinity is $0$.
Is this assumption correct, i.e. can we say $0$ times infinity $= 0$?
(Some web sites state that this is indeterminate; if so, I am not sure how to apply an "indeterminate" term to the integral).