The Riemann hypothesis (RH) states that all non-trivial zeros of the zeta function have real part $\frac{1}{2}$.
The zeta function is intimately connected with the Gamma function via the functional equation.
The second fact suggests that there is an equivalent form of RH which is expressed solely in terms of the Gamma function.
Question: What is the most natural form to translate RH as directly as possible (without mentioning the zeta function) into a hypothesis on the behaviour of the Gamma function?
Since
$$\zeta(z)=\frac{\Gamma (1-z) \left(2^{-z} \left(\psi \left(z-1,1\right)+\psi \left(z-1,\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)-\psi(z-1,1)\right)}{\ln(2)}$$
where $\psi(x,z)$ is the generalized polygamma following Espinosa's generalization, whatever we say about Zeta function we can also say about the right hand part of this identity. It consists only of Gamma function, its (fractional) derivatives and integrals.