Given $G$ is a group and there is a homomorphism $\Bbb Z → G$ given by $φ(1) = a$, what is $\ker φ$, and $\Bbb Z/\ker φ$?
Since I don't know what is identity of $G$, I cannot identify kernel. My guess is that kernel is just $\{0\}$ or $\Bbb Z$ because $1$ generates the whole group $\Bbb Z$ so that $φ(n) = an$. To have $0= an$, either $a$ or $n$ need to be $0$.
However, if my guess was right, $\Bbb Z/\ker φ$ becomes $\Bbb Z$ or $\Bbb Z/\Bbb Z$, which I don't feel right. What is mistake in my guess?
To take an important example, what about the canonical submersion $\varphi: \Bbb Z\to \dfrac{\Bbb Z}{n\Bbb Z}$? The kernel is $n\Bbb Z$.
In general, the kernel of a homomorphism is a subgroup. The only (nontrivial) subgroups of $\Bbb Z$ are $n\Bbb Z$ for some $n$.
Note that we will have $n=\vert a\vert$, where $\varphi (1)=a$.
So, either the kernel is infinite and $\Bbb Z/\operatorname {ker}\varphi\cong\Bbb Z_n$, the kernel is trivial and $\Bbb Z/\operatorname {ker}\varphi\cong\Bbb Z$, or $\varphi $ could be the zero homomorphism, in which case $\Bbb Z/\operatorname {ker}\varphi\cong\{e\}$.