Find $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to 0}\left(x{{\left\lfloor{ \frac{1}{x}} \right\rfloor}}\right)$.
When $x\to0^{+}$ I have $\left(x{\left\lfloor{ \frac{1}{x}} \right\rfloor}\right)\to 0\cdot \infty$.
When $\to 0^{-}$ I have $\left(x{\left\lfloor{ \frac{1}{x}} \right\rfloor}\right)\to 0\cdot \infty$.
I have no idea,
Letting $x\to0+$ is the same as letting ${1\over x}=:y\to\infty$, i.e., $$\lim_{x\to0+}\bigl(x\>\lfloor 1/x\rfloor\bigr)=\lim_{y\to\infty}{\lfloor y\rfloor\over y}\ .$$ Since $\ y-1<\lfloor y\rfloor\leq y$ it follows that the limit is $1$, by the squeeze theorem. The case $x\to0-$ leads to $y\to-\infty$, and is similar.