I found the following limit in an exercise book:
$$ \lim_{x\to -\infty} xe^x = 0 $$
this limit is supposed to be solvable without knowledge of L'hospital nor more advanced techniques such as Taylor or others.
So the question is, how can I find that this limit is $ 0 $ using only simple algebraic manipulation or the common limit list?
2026-03-24 23:45:03.1774395903
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how to find the limit $ \lim_{x\to -\infty} xe^x = 0 $ using only simple algebraic manipulation
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$\lim_{x\to -\infty} xe^x= \lim_{x\to \infty}(-x)\frac{1}{e^x}$, hence we investigate
$\lim_{x\to \infty}x \frac{1}{e^x}$.
For $x>0$ we have $e^x \ge \frac{x^2}{2}$ (power series expansion). Thus
$ 0 \le \frac{x}{e^x} \le \frac{2}{x}$. This gives: $\lim_{x\to \infty}x \frac{1}{e^x}=0$.
Therefore $\lim_{x\to -\infty} xe^x=0$.
First a substitution: set $t=-x\;(t\to+\infty)$. You then have to find the limit of $\;-\dfrac t{\mathrm e^ t}$ when $t\to+\infty$. It's a high school result that this limit is $0$.
However, here is the standard proof in high school:
Taking the log, it amounts to proving that $\lim_{t\to +\infty}(\ln t-t)=-\infty$.
For this, you need a lemma:
This is an easy consequence of the inequality on derivatives $$\frac 1t <\frac 1{\sqrt {t\mkern2mu}}$$ and the fact that $\ln 1 < 2\sqrt 1$.
Using this lemma, we have, for all $t>1$: $$\ln t-t < 2\sqrt t-t\to -\infty\enspace\text{when}\enspace t\to +\infty.$$