I'm trying to prove the following: If $T$ is a first-order theory with the property that for every natural number $n$ there is a natural number $m>n$ such that $T$ has an $m$-element model then $T$ has an infinite model.
My thoughts: If $M$ is an $n$-element model then $\varphi_n = \exists v_1, \dots, v_n ((v_1 \neq v_2) \land \dots \land (v_{n-1} \neq v_n))$ is true in $M$. Can I use this to show that $T$ has an infinite model? How? Perhaps combine it with the compactness theorem somehow? Thanks for your help.
You are close.
Yes, this is what you need to do, but remember that inequality is not transitive. It is not enough to require $v_i\neq v_{i+1}$, but you need to have $\varphi_n=\bigwedge_{i\neq j<n} v_i\neq v_j$.
If there are arbitrarily large finite models, then every finite collection of sentences of the form above is consistent with $T$, therefore $T\cup\{\varphi_n\mid n\in\omega\}$ is consistent and any model of that cannot be finite.