Let $R$ be a ring, let $\alpha$ be a root of the polynomial $f(x)\in R[x]$. How can I formally prove that the kernel of the evaluation map $\phi:R[x]\rightarrow R[\alpha]$ defined as $f(x)\mapsto f(\alpha)$ is $\langle f(x)\rangle$?
EDIT: the original statement is incorrect. But now how to formally prove that $R[x]/\langle f(x)\rangle$ is isomorphic to $R[α]$?
EDIT: In Artin algebra page 339, we denote the ring we get by adjointing a toot of $f$ by $R$, if the 2 rings are not isomorphic, why are we able to do that? Could someone please explain? Thanks in advance!

The idea that comes across here is that when we're modding out by the ideal generated by $f(x)$, the class $\overline{x}$ of $x$ in the quotient ring satisfies $f(\overline{x})=0$ because $f(\overline{x})=\overline{f(x)}=\overline{0}$. So if you define $\alpha=\overline{x}$, then $R[\alpha]$ is exactly isomorphic to $R[x]/(f(x))$, because the minimal polynomial for $\alpha$ is exactly $f$ by definition. So you may use the first isomorphism theorem with the map $x\rightarrow\alpha$, and the kernel will be exactly multiples of $f$.