Let $p\in\{2,3,4,\dots\}$. Suppose that $\forall x,y\in\mathbb Z\ p\mid xy\implies p\mid x\lor p\mid y$. Show that $p$ is prime.
I am not fully understanding this problem. If I input numbers into the equation so for example $x = 5, y = 10$ and $p = 10$ then $p$ is clearly not prime, but it does divide the product of 5 and 10. Am I suppose to assume that $p$ is prime? if that's the case why do I have to show that $p$ is prime? Thanks.
Let's unpack "$\forall x,y\in\mathbb{Z}, p\mid xy\implies p\mid x\lor p\mid y$" a little.
This says,
You are to show that the absence of witnesses to falsehood forces that $p$ is prime. Equivalently, by contraposition, you are to show that $p$ not a prime forces the existence of a witness of falsehood.
Working through a simple example can suggest an outline of the proof. As an example of showing the contrapositive version, the choice $p=6$ is not prime. Now take $x = 2$, $y=3$. We see that $p = 6 \mid 6 = 2 \cdot 3 = x y$. However, $p = 6 \not\mid 2 = x$ and $p \not\mid 3 = y$. Consequently, the pair $(2,3)$ is a witness to the falsehood of the implication when $p = 6$. So for this particular choice of not prime $p$, we have shown that there is a witness to falsehood of the implication. How would you modify this argument to work for an arbitrary not prime $p$?