I am wanting to show that $\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{nit}dt=0$ for $n\neq0$, but I am unsure if it is correct to write $$\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{int}\mathrm dt=\left.\frac{e^{int}}{ni}\right|_{0}^{2\pi}$$ or $$\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{int}\mathrm dt=\left.\frac{e^{int}}{n}\right|_{0}^{2\pi}$$
I know both will yield the same answer but it will help to know for future reference.
The first one is correct; the second one is not. The formula arises from the fact that $\frac d {dt} e^{int}=ine^{int}$.