I encountered this integral in the quantum field theory calculation. Can I do this:
$$ \left. \int_{0}^{1}\ln\left(\, x\,\right)\,{\rm d}x =x\ln\left(\, x\,\right)\right\vert_{0}^{1} -\int_{0}^{1}\,{\rm d}x =\left. x\ln\left(\, x\,\right)\right\vert_{\, x\ =\ 0}\ -\ 1 $$
So the first term looks divergent. But Mathematica gives finite result and the integral is $-1$. Why isn't the first term divergent ?.
Use L'Hopital's Rule to resolve the indeterminate form: $$\lim_{x\to 0^+}x\ln x=\lim_{x\to 0^+}{\ln x\over x^{-1}}=\lim_{x\to 0^+}{x^{-1}\over -x^{-2}}=\lim_{x\to 0^+}(-x)=0$$