In page 39 of the book Fourier Analysis, it reads:
Given a function g on $\mathbb{R}^+ = (0, \infty)$, the Hardy operator acting on $g$ is defined by $$ Tg(t) = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t g(s)\,ds,\quad t\in\mathbb{R}^+. $$ If $g\in L^1(\mathbb{R}^+)$ is non-negative, then, since $Tg$ is continuous, one can show that $$|E(\lambda)| = \frac{1}{\lambda}\int_{E(\lambda)}g(t) dt, $$ where $E(\lambda) = \{t\in\mathbb{R}^+: Tg(t) \ge \lambda\}$.
How to proof the second equation above?

I don't have any clever way, but I do it in brute force. My way is to assume first that $g=\chi_{(a,b)}$, and then I guess that one can generalize to any step functions, and since step functions are dense in $L^{1}$, then the assertion should go through.
Now assume that $1-\dfrac{a}{b}\leq\lambda<1$, then $|E(\lambda)|=b-\dfrac{a}{1-\lambda}+\dfrac{b-a}{\lambda}-b=\dfrac{b-a-b\lambda}{\lambda(1-\lambda)}$ and one check that \begin{align*} \dfrac{1}{\lambda}\int_{E(\lambda)}\chi_{(a,b)}(t)dt&=\dfrac{1}{\lambda}\int_{a/(1-\lambda)}^{b}\chi_{(a,b)}(t)dt+\dfrac{1}{\lambda}\int_{b}^{(b-a)/\lambda}\chi_{(a,b)}(t)dt\\ &=\dfrac{1}{\lambda}\int_{a/(1-\lambda)}^{b}\chi_{(a,b)}(t)dt\\ &=\dfrac{b-a-b\lambda}{\lambda(1-\lambda)}. \end{align*} For $\lambda\geq 1$ or $\lambda<1-a/b$ is treated similarly.