I believe this cannot be handled by just analytical transformations and L'Hôpital's rule (there is no derivate of n!...)
How can I prove that:
$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\log_2 n!} = 0$
My only attempt so far at breaking this one was:
$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\log_2 n!} = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{\log_2 2^n}{\log_2 n!} = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \log_{n!} 2^n$
It is easy to prove that
$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{2^n}{n!} = 0$
Because:
$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{2^n}{n!} = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \binom{2}{1}\binom{2}{2}\binom{2}{3}...\binom{2}{n} < \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{4}{n} = 0$
Because both $2^n > 0$ and $n! > 0$
But I don't know how to use it as proof for limit
Using Cesaro-Stolz:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\log_2 n!} =\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n+1-n}{\log_2 (n+1)!-\log_2 n!}=\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\log_2 (n+1)} = 0$$