Probably, it's a elementary question, but I would like some explanation.
Everyone knows that equality relation is (i) reflexive, (ii) symmetric and (iii) transitive, that is, satisfies
(i) $x=x$;
(ii) $x=y\Rightarrow y=x$;
(iii) $x=y$ and $y=z\Rightarrow x=z$.
I'm interested in to deduce these properties from some appropriate definition of equality. Fraleigh's algebra book presents the following
Definition. Let $X$ be a nonempty set. The equality relation in $X$ is the subset $$\{(x,x);\;x\in X\}\subset X\times X.$$
Let $\mathcal{R}$ be the equality relation in $X$.
By definition, $x\mathcal{R}x$ for all $x\in X$. So, $\mathcal{R}$ is reflexive.
Question 1. How to write a formal proof to the symmetry and the reflexivity?
Fraleigh denotes the equality relation by $=$ and, after the definition, says "Thus for any $x\in X$, we have $x=x$ but if $x$ and $y$ are different elements of $X$, then $(x,y)\notin =$ and we write $x\neq y$".
Question 2. Has the above comment any sense? For me, it sounds like "if $(x,y)\notin =$ then $(x,y)\notin =$".
Thanks.
So the equality relation just means that things are "equal" when they're the same (like $x$ and $x$) and "not equal" when they're not the same (like $x$ and $y$).
You've already shown it's reflexive.
For symmetry, suppose that $$x=y$$ Then $$x=x$$ so "switching" :) :) $$y=x$$
For transitivity, suppose $x=y$ and $y=z$. Then $$x=y=z$$ so $$x=z$$ This is one of those proofs that seems so obvious its more confusing to just not formally prove it.
EDIT: on second thought, the best way to think about it is as a partition. The "equality relation" partitions each element into their own private cell. How anti-social.