Well, I was trying to do that using proof by induction and my attempt is :
Base case : $(\frac{3}{2})^0 \ge 0$, true
Assumption : $(\frac{3}{2})^k \ge k$.
I've multiplied both sides by $(\frac{3}{2})$ i got $(\frac{3}{2})^{k+1}\ge (\frac{3}{2})k$ i don't know what do to tun this $(\frac{3}{2})k$ to $k+1$
By the way : (for any $n\in\mathbb{N}$)
Once you have $\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)^k > k$ for $k\geq 2$, you get that $$\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)^{k+1}=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)^k > \left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)k = k+\frac{k}{2} \geq k+1.$$