I'm doing some exercises and I've read that, if $\alpha$ is the first prime factor of a number $m \geq 2$, then, for every $k \geq \alpha$, it is true that $gcd(k!\ mod\ m,\ m) > 1$.
I can see that $gcd(k!,\ m) > 1$ is true because $k!$ contains $\alpha$ as one of its factors, but I can't see where that mod m fits in.
By the division algorithm, $k!=qm+r$ for $q,r\in\mathbb{Z}$ with $0\le r<m$. Since $\alpha|k!$ and $\alpha|qm$, we must have that $\alpha|r$, and hence $\textrm{gcd}(k!\mod m,m)=\textrm{gcd}(r,m)>1$.