How do I prove that the limit of the following function is $1$?
$\displaystyle\lim_{x\to \pi/2} (\tan x)^{\tan2x}$
I shouldn't use l'Hôpital's rule.
I have proven that limit is greater than $1$ but couldn't sandwich on the other side (I mean, the limit is less than $1$).
Let $y=log(tan x)$ $\lim_{x\to{\pi/2}}$
Then $\lim_{x\to\pi/2}log((tan (x))^{tan2x})=\lim_{x\to\pi/2}tan2x(\log {tan (x)})$
Using $tan2x=2 tan (x)/(1+tan^2x))$
$\lim_{x\to\pi/2}tan2x(\log {tan (x)})=\lim_{y\to\infty}\frac{2e^y}{1-e^{2y}}y$
$=\frac{2y}{e^{-y}-e^y}=\frac{2}{\frac{e^{-y}}{y}-\frac{e^y}{y}}$
But
$\lim_{y\to\infty}\frac{e^{-y}}{y}=0$
$\lim_{y\to\infty}\frac{e^{y}}{y}=\infty$ as $e^y/y=1/y+1+y/2!...$ by Taylor expansion
So
$\lim_{y\to\infty}\frac{2}{\frac{e^{-y}}{y}-\frac{e^y}{y}}=0$ $\implies \lim_{x\to\pi/2}log((tan (x))^{tan2x})=0$ $\implies \lim_{x \to \pi/2}tan(x)^{tan 2x}=1$