As is known, non-zero infinitesimals exist. It can be proved.
In the book "A Primer of Infinitesimal Analysis" John Bell introduced infinitesimals that indistinguishable from zero. He did it implicitly.
How did he know that such infinitesimals exist? He didn't prove it.
How to prove it?
Thanks.

This is a non-trivial matter. There is a sketch in the Appendix to Bell's book
Here on page one finds: