Let $F_1 = \exists P\exists Q\exists R \forall x\forall y\forall z (P(x,y) \land Q(y,z) \rightarrow R(x,z))$
and $F_2 =\exists P\exists Q\exists R \forall x\forall y\forall z (Q(x,y) \land P(y,z) \rightarrow R(x,z))$
So P and Q have swapped position in $F_2$.
Are $F_1$ and and $F_2$ logically equivalent? I believe so because $P$ and $Q$ are existentially quantified variables. However, I am not sure how to express this. How do you prove this?
For a formal proof, you need rules for second-order logic; see Dirk van Dalen, Logic and Structure (5th ed - 2013), page 147, for the natural deduction version.
In both cases, you have to apply $\exists^2$-E twice, then use propositional rules to have :
and finally apply $\exists^2$-I twice.