I am trying assignment questions of Linear algebra and couldn't solve this particular question regarding diagonalizabilty.
Let $n \times n$ complex matrix $A$ satisfies $A^k = I$ the $n \times n $ identity matrix, where $k$ is a positive integer $>1$ and let $1$ not be an eigenvalue of $A$. Then how to prove that A is necessarity Diagonalizable?
As $A^k=I$ and 1 is not an eigenvalue so $(A-I ) (A^{k-1}+...+ I)=0$ implies that $(A^{k-1}+...+ I)=0$ but I am unable to move foreward .
Can you please help?
You could have assumed less. The condition "1 is not an eigenvalue of $A$" is unnecessary.
Recall that a complex matrix $A$ is diagonizable if and only if its minimal polynomial has no multiple roots. If $A^k = I$, then the minimal polynomial of $A$, which we denote by $f(x)$, necessarily divides $x^k - 1$. We conclude that $f(x)$ cannot have multiple roots since $x^k - 1$ has $k$ distinct roots in $\mathbb{C}$. Hence $A$ is diagonizable.
Alternatively, we may use Jordan Canonical Form to see the diagonizability. Suppose on the contrary $A$ is not diagonalizable, then there must exist some nontrivial Jordan block $B$ of the Jordan Canonical Form in the following form: $$\begin{pmatrix} \lambda & 1 & 0 & \cdots & 0 \\ 0 & \lambda & 1 & \cdots & 0 \\ \vdots & \vdots & \vdots& \ddots & \vdots \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & \lambda & 1 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & \lambda \end{pmatrix}$$ which satisfies $B^k = I$. This is impossible by calculating, for example, the $(1,2)$-entry of $B^k$, since $\lambda \neq 0$.