If $x$, $y$ and $a$ are vectors in $\mathbb{R}$, is the following inequality true?
$||y - a|| - ||x-a|| \ge (\frac{x-a}{||x-a||})^T(y-x)$
I cannot come up with a counterexample, but I also do not know how to approach proving norm inequalities.
If $x$, $y$ and $a$ are vectors in $\mathbb{R}$, is the following inequality true?
$||y - a|| - ||x-a|| \ge (\frac{x-a}{||x-a||})^T(y-x)$
I cannot come up with a counterexample, but I also do not know how to approach proving norm inequalities.
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As I have written in my comment, it is enough to prove
\begin{equation}\|y\|-\|x\|\ge \frac{\langle x,y-x\rangle}{\|x\|}\tag{1}\end{equation}
for $x\ne 0.$
By the Schwarz inequality we have $|\langle x,y\rangle|\le\|x\|\cdot\|y\|$, in particular $$\langle x,y\rangle\le\|x\|\cdot\|y\|.$$
Then
$$\langle x,y\rangle-\|x\|^2\le\|x\|\cdot\|y\|-\|x\|^2.$$
Hence
$$\langle x,y\rangle-\langle x,x\rangle \le\|x\|\cdot\|y\|-\|x\|^2.$$
By the properties of the inner product
$$\langle x,y-x\rangle\le\|x\|\cdot\|y\|-\|x\|^2.$$
Dividing both sides by $\|x\|$ we arrive at the desired inequality.
Now, assuming $x\ne a$, apply the inequality $(1)$ to $x-a,y-a$ to get the inequality you have written.